I'm not talkin about folks who prefer KJV, I'm talkin about the folks who say it's the ONLY right English version.
1. If the KJV is perfect, why did they have to revise it four times?
2.Why do KJV only folks reject the apocrypha seeing it was in the original 1611 version?
3.If the KJV was perfect, why did the original translators put in alternate readings in the margins? If you said the printers did it, how in the world would printers get the learnin to know of such differences in the greek?
4. When there is a difference between the KJV English and the TR Greek, why do you believe that the Greek was wrong and the KJV English is correct?
5.In defending the KJV's use of archaic language, do you really think it is a good thing that a person must use an Early Modern English dictionary just to understand the Bible in casual reading? If you're answer is that people just need to ask God for revelation, then why not just hand someone a greek and hebrew copy of the bible and expect God to reveal that too?
6.Is it not ridiculous to suggest that when the TR disagrees with the KJV that Greek TR has errors, but the KJV doesn't? Is this not the ultimate example of "translation worship"? (Reject the original in favour of the translation)
7.If the Textus Receptus is the error free text, then why are the last 6 verses of Revelation absence from the TR, yet present in the KJV? Did you know that for these verses, the Latin Vulgate was translated into Greek which was then translated into English - a translation of a translation of a translation?
8.Why do KJV only advocates believe that the English of the KJV is clearer and more precise than the original Greek language manuscripts? Why should Bible students throw out their Greek dictionaries and buy an "archaic English" dictionary? Are there not word pictures in the original Greek words that the English cannot easily convey? (Jas 2:19 "tremble"; Greek: PHRISSO, indicates to be rough, to bristle. is a powerful word picture of how the demons are in such terror that their skin is rough with goose pimples. Also differences between "agape" and "phileo" love words.)
9.Why would the translators use book headings like "The Gospel According to Saint Luke" since the Greek merely says "The Gospel According to Luke". Does not this show that the translators were influenced by their contemporary theology and the Catholic false doctrine of "sainthood"?
10.If the KJV is error free in the English, then why did they fail to correctly distinguish between "Devil and Demons" (Mt 4:1-DIABOLOS and Jn 13:2-DAIMONIZOMAI) ; "hades and hell" (see Lk 16:23-HADES and Mt 5:22-GEENNA; Note: Hades is distinct from hell because hades is thrown into hell after judgement: Rev 20:14)
11.How can you accept that the Textus Receptus is perfect and error free when Acts 9:6 is found only in the Latin Vulgate but absolutely no Greek manuscript known to man? Further, how come in Rev 22:19 the phrase "book of life" is used in the KJV when absolutely ALL known Greek manuscripts read "tree of life"?
12.Must we possess a perfectly flawless bible translation in order to call it "the word of God"? If so, how do we know "it" is perfect? If not, why do some "limit" "the word of God" to only ONE "17th Century English" translation? Where was "the word of God" prior to 1611? Did our Pilgrim Fathers have "the word of God" when they brought the GENEVA BIBLE translation with them to North America?
13.WHEN was the KJV "given by inspiration of God" — 1611, or any of the KJV major/minor revisions in 1613, 1629, 1638, 1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, and the last one in 1850?
14.Did the KJV translators mislead their readers by saying that their New Testament was "translated out of the original Greek"? [title page of KJV N.T.] Were they "liars" for claiming to have "the original Greek" to translate from?
15.Since the revisions of the KJV from 1613-1850 made (in addition to changes in punctuation, capitalization, and spelling) many hundreds of changes in words, word order, possessives, singulars for plurals, articles, pronouns, conjunctions, prepositions, entire phrases, and the addition and deletion of words — would you say the KJV was "verbally inerrant" in 1611, 1629, 1638, 1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, or 1850?
Thursday, February 14, 2008
Sunday, February 3, 2008
Three Questions About Speaking In Tongues
Three Questions About Speaking In Tongues
Many people say they are able to speak in tongues today as some in New Testament times did. They claim this power is given by the Holy Spirit. By looking at three questions about tongue speaking we can know whether or not this miraculous gift is still available today.
Question #1. What was tongue speaking as we read of it in the New Testament? This is an important question. As we answer it from the Bible we will see that tongue speaking in New Testament times was something totally different from the so-called tongue speaking today. Look at the second chapter of Acts to see the difference. First of all notice verses 1-4: "And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place. And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance."
These verses refer to the apostles who had been promised the power of the Holy Spirit by Jesus (Acts 1:8). They had been waiting for that power which enabled them to speak in other tongues. Now, what is meant by "tongues?" The answer is seen by looking at other verses.
In verse 6 of Acts 2, we read, "Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language." Notice the words "in his own language." What was called "tongues" in verse 4 is referred to as "language" in verse 6. But it was a language known to some of those who were in the audience. Then in verses 7 and 8 we read "And they were all amazed and marveled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galileans? And how hear we every man in our own tongue, where in we were born?" Notice the expression "in our own tongue." Can we not see that the words "tongue" and "language" mean the same thing? These people heard the apostles preaching to them in their native tongues or languages. The miracle was upon the apostles. The Holy Spirit gave them the power to speak languages they had never studied!
Today, those who claim to be "Pentecostal" in their practice of tongue speaking are not doing what was done on Pentecost at all. On the day of Pentecost, the Spirit gave the apostles the power to communicate the gospel to people in the native languages of those people. Such is not being done today.
Question #2. "Who was able to speak in tongues during New Testament times?" There were three groups in the New Testament who could speak in tongues, or languages they had never studied. The first group was the apostles, as we have already noted. They received the baptism of the Holy Spirit on Pentecost which gave them this power. The second group included those people to whom the apostles gave this power by laying their hands on them. This is the way this miraculous gift was given. One example of this is seen in Acts 19. There certain disciples were given this power by the laying on of the Apostle Paul's hands. Notice verses 5 and:. "When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied."
Is there an apostle still living today? No. So there is no one who can give this power to anyone else. And no one is still alive today who was given this power by an apostle. Therefore, the gift of tongue speaking is not available today.
"But what about Cornelius and his household?" someone asks. They spoke in tongues without an apostle laying his hands on them. This is true, but this third group which spoke in tongues in the New Testament was a special group. Cornelius spoke in tongues as a sign that the Gentiles were to receive the gospel along with the Jews. You see, until the events recorded in Acts 10 and 11 occurred, only the Jews had received the gospel. But here God was making it clear that the Gentiles were also to hear the gospel. To make this clear to the Christians (former Jews) who were present at the house of Cornelius, God gave the Holy Spirit directly to these Gentiles. By doing so, no one who saw it could deny that this was the work of God. It was a special event for a special purpose. It happened only one time. The gospel is still being preached to the Gentiles, but no person is receiving the Holy Spirit as Cornelius did. Therefore, no person is speaking in tongues as he did.
So we see the three groups in the New Testament who spoke in tongues. Each did so for a specific and special purpose. Those purposes do not exist today, and no one is speaking in tongues today.
Question #3. Was the gift of tongue speaking to cease, and if so, when? The answer is "Yes." This gift of the Holy Spirit was to end when the New Testament was completed. This was clearly stated by Paul in 1 Corinthians 13:8-13. The verses tell us: "Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. And now abideth faith, hope, charity, these three; but the greatest of these is charity."
Paul refers to "that which is perfect." The word "perfect" means complete or whole. At the time Paul wrote, the revelation from God was not in its final written form. Now it is complete. "That which is perfect" (the New Testament) has come and that which was "in part" (miraculous gifts) has been done away. So we can see that Paul's inspired prediction has come true.
Tongue speaking in the New Testament referred to speaking in foreign languages not known to the speaker. There were three groups in the New Testament able to speak in tongues miraculously. None of these groups is present today. The miraculous gift of tongue speaking was limited in time to the period before the New Testament was completed. That time has come and gone, and so has the ability to speak in tongues, along with all other miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit. We have the Word of God. Let us follow it in all things and teach only the truth.
Many people say they are able to speak in tongues today as some in New Testament times did. They claim this power is given by the Holy Spirit. By looking at three questions about tongue speaking we can know whether or not this miraculous gift is still available today.
Question #1. What was tongue speaking as we read of it in the New Testament? This is an important question. As we answer it from the Bible we will see that tongue speaking in New Testament times was something totally different from the so-called tongue speaking today. Look at the second chapter of Acts to see the difference. First of all notice verses 1-4: "And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place. And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance."
These verses refer to the apostles who had been promised the power of the Holy Spirit by Jesus (Acts 1:8). They had been waiting for that power which enabled them to speak in other tongues. Now, what is meant by "tongues?" The answer is seen by looking at other verses.
In verse 6 of Acts 2, we read, "Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language." Notice the words "in his own language." What was called "tongues" in verse 4 is referred to as "language" in verse 6. But it was a language known to some of those who were in the audience. Then in verses 7 and 8 we read "And they were all amazed and marveled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galileans? And how hear we every man in our own tongue, where in we were born?" Notice the expression "in our own tongue." Can we not see that the words "tongue" and "language" mean the same thing? These people heard the apostles preaching to them in their native tongues or languages. The miracle was upon the apostles. The Holy Spirit gave them the power to speak languages they had never studied!
Today, those who claim to be "Pentecostal" in their practice of tongue speaking are not doing what was done on Pentecost at all. On the day of Pentecost, the Spirit gave the apostles the power to communicate the gospel to people in the native languages of those people. Such is not being done today.
Question #2. "Who was able to speak in tongues during New Testament times?" There were three groups in the New Testament who could speak in tongues, or languages they had never studied. The first group was the apostles, as we have already noted. They received the baptism of the Holy Spirit on Pentecost which gave them this power. The second group included those people to whom the apostles gave this power by laying their hands on them. This is the way this miraculous gift was given. One example of this is seen in Acts 19. There certain disciples were given this power by the laying on of the Apostle Paul's hands. Notice verses 5 and:. "When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied."
Is there an apostle still living today? No. So there is no one who can give this power to anyone else. And no one is still alive today who was given this power by an apostle. Therefore, the gift of tongue speaking is not available today.
"But what about Cornelius and his household?" someone asks. They spoke in tongues without an apostle laying his hands on them. This is true, but this third group which spoke in tongues in the New Testament was a special group. Cornelius spoke in tongues as a sign that the Gentiles were to receive the gospel along with the Jews. You see, until the events recorded in Acts 10 and 11 occurred, only the Jews had received the gospel. But here God was making it clear that the Gentiles were also to hear the gospel. To make this clear to the Christians (former Jews) who were present at the house of Cornelius, God gave the Holy Spirit directly to these Gentiles. By doing so, no one who saw it could deny that this was the work of God. It was a special event for a special purpose. It happened only one time. The gospel is still being preached to the Gentiles, but no person is receiving the Holy Spirit as Cornelius did. Therefore, no person is speaking in tongues as he did.
So we see the three groups in the New Testament who spoke in tongues. Each did so for a specific and special purpose. Those purposes do not exist today, and no one is speaking in tongues today.
Question #3. Was the gift of tongue speaking to cease, and if so, when? The answer is "Yes." This gift of the Holy Spirit was to end when the New Testament was completed. This was clearly stated by Paul in 1 Corinthians 13:8-13. The verses tell us: "Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. And now abideth faith, hope, charity, these three; but the greatest of these is charity."
Paul refers to "that which is perfect." The word "perfect" means complete or whole. At the time Paul wrote, the revelation from God was not in its final written form. Now it is complete. "That which is perfect" (the New Testament) has come and that which was "in part" (miraculous gifts) has been done away. So we can see that Paul's inspired prediction has come true.
Tongue speaking in the New Testament referred to speaking in foreign languages not known to the speaker. There were three groups in the New Testament able to speak in tongues miraculously. None of these groups is present today. The miraculous gift of tongue speaking was limited in time to the period before the New Testament was completed. That time has come and gone, and so has the ability to speak in tongues, along with all other miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit. We have the Word of God. Let us follow it in all things and teach only the truth.
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